daughtry76
daughtry76
01-03-2018
Mathematics
contestada
why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?
Respuesta :
angicarl
angicarl
01-03-2018
16 to the power of 0 is one because any number to the 0 power is 1. This is because you aren't multiply 16 (or any number) by itself any amount of times.
Answer Link
AnimeBrainly
AnimeBrainly
01-03-2018
16^0 = 1 because
any number to the zero power is just the product of no numbers at all, which = 1.
hope this helps
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 19+ )
Otras preguntas
How many lines of symmetry does a regular heptagon have?
what is the main function of the gallbladder
Lee's vacation is in 34/7 weeks.Which shows the number of weeks until Lee's vacation written as a fraction greater than one?
What name was given to the Allied plan to invade France?
If aluminum loses 3 electrons how do you write the ion
When you know both the speed and direction of an objects motion you know the .....
how to advise a friend who responds to conflict by confrontation (why is it unhealthy)
who was the first person to invent something
Which equation is represented by the table? x y (x, y) 0 –1 (0, –1) 1 4 (1, 4) 2 9 (2, 9) A. y = 3x + 3 B. y = 3x – 4 C. y = 5x – 1 D. y = –3x + 3
The basic functional unit of the kidney is which of the following? A. nephron. B. neuron. C. ureter. D. urethra.