TheBeast101
TheBeast101 TheBeast101
  • 04-03-2015
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is 16% of 40the same as 40% of 16

Respuesta :

Аноним Аноним
  • 04-03-2015
yes! 

40% of 16 = 6.4

16% of 40 = 6.4

Answer Link
EamonnAdams1992 EamonnAdams1992
  • 23-08-2019

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to change 16% to a fraction:

[tex]=16/100=4/25[/tex]

We can multiply 4/25 by 40:

[tex]=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5[/tex]

We can do the same for 40% of 16:

[tex]=40/100=2/5[/tex]

We can multiply 2/5 by 16:

[tex]=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5[/tex]

Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

HELP Choose correct imparfait verb form: Ma cousine ___ de l’eau a. buvait b. boisait c. boirait
1. What is the circumference of the circle in terms of pie? 2. What is the area of the circle shown in terms of pie?
What is the length of the missing side? Hint: use the Pythagorean Theorem.
Which process was responsible for producing gases in the early atmosphere?
Can someone please help me with this question
A factory makes bicycles.Out of 300 bicycles, 2 were found to have defective brakes A.what is the experimental probability that the next bike manufactured will
The circle shown below has a diameter of 18 centimeters. What is theapproximate area of the shaded sector?A. 763 cm2B. 509 cm2C. 212 cm2D. 191 cm2​
is considered the primary author of the Declaration of Independence.
Who killed Remus and why?
AWARDING BRAINLIEST